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For and Eldar Long Rifle if you roll a 6 to hit (5 or 6 for Pathfinders) the shot is resolved at AP1. Now, since they're snipers, if that shot rends, does it then get reduced to AP2 or is it still at AP1?

It would be both IMO, of course only AP1 would matter.

In this case, the codex specifically says its AP1 so it remains that.

Yeah Codex:Eldar gives specific rules for their rifles. It would be PA 1 and not 2.

For a couple things this comes up, Nemesis Daemon Hammer is both AP 3 as an Unusual Force Weapon but also AP 2 since it functions like a Thunder Hammer. Vindicare Assassin's Exitus Rifle is AP 1, but if it Rends it is also AP 2. I've always taken these instances that you resolve at the highest AP you have in each situation as it applies and ignore what ever other values there are.

Just to play a little bit:

The sniper rifle hits a vehicle with AV 10, rolls a 6 to hit and a 6 to penetrate, adding +d3 because of rending.

Now, we got a penetrating hit on the vehicle. How much do we add on the vehicle damage chart? +1 for being AP 2 or +2 being AP 1 ?

Or maybe +3 for both of those modificators?

It is both AP2 and Ap1. So you add +2, because by adding +2 you satisfy the +1 for AP2