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Made in gb
Hardened Veteran Guardsman





As the title says, do new edition FAQs automatically invalidate previous FAQs?

For example, in the 6th edition Grey Knight FAQ, it stated that Dreadknights with Greatswords had both the strength 10 from the fists and the re-rolls from the sword. However this is not repeated in the 7th edition FAQ so are they back down to characteristic strength and re rolls or do the FAQ's stack until a codex update?

Thanks

DC:80S--G+M---B---IPw40k08#-D+A+++/eWD-R+T(T)DM+

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Made in gb
Decrepit Dakkanaut




No, tehy are not back to Char S, at all, as the Sord states the benefits gained by the Sword are simply for having the sword, not using it - bearing vs wielding. The FAQ was NOT a change in rules.
   
Made in gb
Hardened Veteran Guardsman





So you take the sword but actually use the Doomfists? And the sword is treated like a relic or banner or something that just passively gives you the re-roll bonus?


DC:80S--G+M---B---IPw40k08#-D+A+++/eWD-R+T(T)DM+

1500
1500
1500 - Retired
 
   
Made in au
Frenzied Berserker Terminator






 Diggory_x wrote:
As the title says, do new edition FAQs automatically invalidate previous FAQs?

GW doesn't really tell us which publications are still "current" - this includes both books and FAQ documents. One could argue that even third edition FAQs are still legal for use, because nothing states that they are no longer usable.

That said, common usage of version numbers and editions implies that newer publications completely replace previous ones.

For example, in the 6th edition Grey Knight FAQ, it stated that Dreadknights with Greatswords had both the strength 10 from the fists and the re-rolls from the sword. However this is not repeated in the 7th edition FAQ so are they back down to characteristic strength and re rolls or do the FAQ's stack until a codex update?

In this specific example, the previous FAQ only ruled for a RAW argument that the wording for the sword doesn't specify that the model actually has to be using it. The sword's rules state that the wielder gains benefits and never requires him to actually use it to make the attacks.

So yes, you still gain the re-rolls when using another weapon in close combat.
   
Made in mx
Morphing Obliterator





Mexico

 Cheexsta wrote:
 Diggory_x wrote:
As the title says, do new edition FAQs automatically invalidate previous FAQs?

GW doesn't really tell us which publications are still "current" - this includes both books and FAQ documents. One could argue that even third edition FAQs are still legal for use, because nothing states that they are no longer usable.

That said, common usage of version numbers and editions implies that newer publications completely replace previous ones.

For example, in the 6th edition Grey Knight FAQ, it stated that Dreadknights with Greatswords had both the strength 10 from the fists and the re-rolls from the sword. However this is not repeated in the 7th edition FAQ so are they back down to characteristic strength and re rolls or do the FAQ's stack until a codex update?

In this specific example, the previous FAQ only ruled for a RAW argument that the wording for the sword doesn't specify that the model actually has to be using it. The sword's rules state that the wielder gains benefits and never requires him to actually use it to make the attacks.

So yes, you still gain the re-rolls when using another weapon in close combat.


Didn't this same wording appear on the chaos daemons codex with one Khorne weapons and after that in some supplements and they were all ruled as that it doesn't apply unless you use that weapon with the GK one being the only exception due to the FAQ which now doesn't exists anymore making it just like the rest of the "bearer" weapon not applicable unless the weapons is used during combat?

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Made in au
Frenzied Berserker Terminator






 Lord Yayula wrote:
 Cheexsta wrote:
 Diggory_x wrote:
As the title says, do new edition FAQs automatically invalidate previous FAQs?

GW doesn't really tell us which publications are still "current" - this includes both books and FAQ documents. One could argue that even third edition FAQs are still legal for use, because nothing states that they are no longer usable.

That said, common usage of version numbers and editions implies that newer publications completely replace previous ones.

For example, in the 6th edition Grey Knight FAQ, it stated that Dreadknights with Greatswords had both the strength 10 from the fists and the re-rolls from the sword. However this is not repeated in the 7th edition FAQ so are they back down to characteristic strength and re rolls or do the FAQ's stack until a codex update?

In this specific example, the previous FAQ only ruled for a RAW argument that the wording for the sword doesn't specify that the model actually has to be using it. The sword's rules state that the wielder gains benefits and never requires him to actually use it to make the attacks.

So yes, you still gain the re-rolls when using another weapon in close combat.


Didn't this same wording appear on the chaos daemons codex with one Khorne weapons and after that in some supplements and they were all ruled as that it doesn't apply unless you use that weapon with the GK one being the only exception due to the FAQ which now doesn't exists anymore making it just like the rest of the "bearer" weapon not applicable unless the weapons is used during combat?

The Khorne Blade of Blood does indeed state that the bearer gains Rampage. I can't find anything in the 6th edition FAQs to say that those abilities could only be used when the weapon was used. This was only assumed at the time, which is why the Dreadknight ruling was controversial - a lot of people (including myself) didn't realise that you have to pay attention to how the weapon's rules are worded to know how and when they are applied.

In any case, there is no ruling about it at all in 7th as far as I remember, so RAW is simple: if the Dreadknight is equipped with the sword of doom, he gains the benefits with all of his close combat attacks.
   
Made in de
Decrepit Dakkanaut





Depends. Normally, FAQs fully override the previous one.

We now face a special situation where parts of a FAQ have been left out and it's unknown whether it was intenetional or not.

   
Made in gb
Decrepit Dakkanaut




Well it was intentional that they were left out, as they had full control over hat to include and what to exclude. Whether they left it out intentionally because they thought the rules were clear, or they were totally unawares of any reason why people would query this, or even if they have any idea on the rules governing this at all, is what is unclear.
   
 
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