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This may be a pretty simple, but it cropped up in a game i had last night. Essentially, at what point does the Reaver in this maniple make its free strike?.

Scenario:
I had a Warhound with double VMB's, one of these VMB's was equipped with storm frag shells. I used the first vanilla VMB and stripped down the shields.

At this point i thought the reaver would take its free shot as each weapon is rolled for singularly and the reaver strikes 'immediately' after the shields are stripped. Therefor after the reavers free shot i would then go back to the warhound and finish its attacks with the second VMB with storm frags.

Although my opponent questioned this, as i was making an out of sequence attack and it does not define the reaver attack as been out of sequence. Therefor he expected that the reaver shot would come after the warhound finishes ALL of its weapon attacks completely rather than after the weapon that strips the shields.

Whats the verdict?

I would say the Reaver strikes immediately, like it says.

I don't really get your opponent's point about it not being "out of sequence" - of course it's out of sequence, that's literally the whole rule! If the rules had to explicitly tell you "this is an exception to the normal rules" every time nothing would happen! You can tell it's out of sequence because an immediate attack is inherently out of sequence.

Indeed - that's how I've played it with my opponent (or my opponent against me). Soon as the shields drop, it's an immediate, out of sequence attack.

Immediately after the attack that dropped the shields is resolved, interrupting the sequence. If a Warhound drops the shields on its first gun, the Reaver fires and then the Warhound carries on.

It's the same as with any other immediate interruption, like a defender pushing shields and awakening their machine spirit to shoot. It just happens and the game carries on from where the original sequence left off.